55074312
Consider the equation \(\sin^2(x)+\cos(x)=1\).
Which Pythagorean rewrite turns this into an equivalent equation involving only \(\cos(x)\)? Write that one-function equation, but do not solve for \(x\).
Hints
- The goal is to leave only cosine, so choose the Pythagorean rearrangement that eliminates sine.
- Replace the squared sine term and leave the rest of the equation unchanged.
Solution
1. Rewrite \(\sin^2(x)\) as \(1-\cos^2(x)\).
2. The equation becomes \(1-\cos^2(x)+\cos(x)=1\), which involves only \(\cos(x)\).
Answer
Use \(\sin^2(x)=1-\cos^2(x)\), giving \(1-\cos^2(x)+\cos(x)=1\).
