For a real constant \(c\), define
\(b_n=\frac1n+\frac{c(-1)^n}{n^2}\).
a) Determine exactly when the alternating series test can be applied directly to \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n b_n\).
b) Show that the series nevertheless converges for every real \(c\).
Hints
- Separate eventual positivity, the zero limit, and one-step decrease.
- Compare the fixed-sign part of a consecutive difference with its parity-dependent part.
- For the second part, rewrite the signed term as a sum of two familiar series.
Solution
1. For every \(c\), \(b_n\to0\), and \(b_n>0\) for all sufficiently large \(n\).
2. The consecutive difference is
\(b_n-b_{n+1}=\frac{1}{n(n+1)}+c(-1)^n\left(\frac1{n^2}+\frac1{(n+1)^2}\right)\).
3. Let
\(R_n=\frac{1/[n(n+1)]}{1/n^2+1/(n+1)^2}
=\frac{n(n+1)}{2n^2+2n+1}\).
Then \(R_n\to\frac12\) and \(R_n<\frac12\).
4. If \(|c|<\frac12\), then \(R_n>|c|\) for all sufficiently large \(n\), so \(b_n-b_{n+1}>0\) eventually. The alternating series test applies.
5. If \(|c|\ge\frac12\), choose the infinitely many indices for which \(c(-1)^n=-|c|\). At those indices,
\(b_n-b_{n+1}\le\frac{1}{n(n+1)}-\frac12\left(\frac1{n^2}+\frac1{(n+1)^2}\right)<0\).
Thus the magnitudes are not eventually nonincreasing, so the test cannot be applied directly.
6. Regardless of \(c\),
\((-1)^n b_n=\frac{(-1)^n}{n}+\frac{c}{n^2}\).
Both series on the right converge, so the given series converges for every real \(c\).
Answer
a) The alternating series test applies directly exactly when \(|c|<\frac12\).
b) The series converges for every real \(c\), including the values for which that test is not directly applicable.